There is no question that the income tax itself, when applied lawfully, is
Constitutional. But the heart of the matter is..................
QUESTION: Who is liable for the income tax?
LET THE CONSTITUTION SPEAK FOR
ITSELF:.......................................... Artlicle 1, Section 8,
Clause 1 States: "The Congress shall have the Power To lay and collect
Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the
common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties,
Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;"
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......... (Above)These are all indirect taxes.
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......... Article 1, Section 9, Clause 4 States: "No Capitation, or other
DIRECT DIRECT DIRECT, Tax shall be laid, unless in Proportion to the
Census or Enumeration hereinbefore directed to be taken."
Do you know what a Capitation tax is? Hint: It is the same as a Head tax
and a direct tax. But different from a sales tax which is an indirect
tax. In summary, NO DIRECT TAX WITHOUT APPORTIONMENT. Do you know what
apportionment is? Do you agree so far?
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.. ........ Article XVI (Bill of Rights)-XVI means 16 as in 16th Amendment
Passed in 1913. (YOUR FAVORITE) "The Congress shall have power to lay and
collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without
apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census
or enumeration."
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.. ........ Now to me there seems to be a contradiction here. First they
say NO DIRECT TAX WITHOUT APPORTIONMENT, then they say IT'S OK TO TAX DIRECTLY WITHOUT APPORTIONMENT. This would mean that this amendment overturns the other. That would be legally impossible. Any Amendment
that contradicts the Constitution would be void. Hmmmmmmm............Lets
see what the Supreme Court says about this......
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.. ....... "Some incorrectly claim that the 16th Amendment (the income tax
amendment) changed the constitutional limitations on direct taxes and
authorized an income tax as a direct tax without apportionment. The U.S.
Supreme Court rejected these claims in the case of BRUSHABER V. UNION
PACIFIC R.R. CO., 240 US 1, (1916), WHEN THEY RULED THAT THE 16TH
AMENDMENT CREATED NO NEW POWER OF TAXATION AND THAT IT DID NOT CHANGE THE CONSTITUTIONAL LIMITATIONS WHICH FORBID ANY FEDERAL DIRECT TAXATION OF INDIVIDUALS WITHIN THE STATES OF THE UNION.
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.. ........
The court stated that the nature of income tax is identified by the wording of the Amendment itself, which says: “Congress shall have the power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, WITHOUT APPORTIONMENT among the several States, and without
regard to any census or enumeration" ...........The court explained that
since it is a tax "without apportionment", the income tax cannot be a direct tax (a tax on individuals or on property), because the Constitution still requires that all FEDERAL direct taxes must be "Apportioned," among
the states.
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.. ........ If you're having trouble understanding what you just read, I'll sum up the conclusion of the above for you. IF the income tax was not imposed on the income of citizens of the United States before the
16th Amendment, and, as the Supreme Court says, the 16th Amendment did not change the United States Constitution, the only logical conclusion a sane person can come to is that their income is still not subject to the
income tax. If you still do not see the light after reading this then I can only assume that you are either deathly afraid of the IRS or that you work for the IRS and you are purposely lying to people to save your own job.
http://legalminds.lp.findlaw.com/list/fedtax-l/msg00597.html